View Single Post
Old 05-07-2004, 09:36 AM   #9 (permalink)
Supple Cow
Americow, the Beautiful
 
Supple Cow's Avatar
 
Location: Washington, D.C.
"Play would have had to have" seems like it would be a complete sentence as long as the preceding sentence specified what the subject of the sentence was. But I'm not 100% certain about that one.

As for the other stuff, I think KnifeMissle was on the right track, but his explanation is still a little sketchy. I don't know the proper terms for this in English, but in French, there is a past tense (passe compose or imparfait) and another past tense that happens before the regular one (plus-que-parfait).

For instance:

If I want to say that something simply happened in the past, I would say (and I'll use your example)...

Play would have had to smoke pot.

BUT, if I wanted to say the same thing AND IT HAD TO HAPPEN BEFORE SOME OTHER SPECIFIED POINT IN THE PAST, it would be...

Play would have had to have smoked pot [...to do whatever it is that he did in the past].

Does that make more sense now?
__________________
"I've missed more than 9000 shots in my career. I've lost almost 300 games. Twenty-six times I've been trusted to take the game winning shot and missed. I've failed over and over and over again in my life. And that is why I succeed."
(Michael Jordan)
Supple Cow is offline  
 

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73