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The whole point of this thread is non-religious.
What he's saying is that particle A collided with particle B, which went on to collide with particle C and so on.
The question is, could particle B ever have interacted with particle C in a different way, given that it collided with A first. Is it possible that particle B could have missed C altogether and struck F, leading to a whole new sequence of events.
This does rely on our intuitive view of causality, as well as all interactions following some kind of Newtonian interaction. As far as I know quantum mechanics and relativity preclude the sort of causality that we assume must be in place.
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