Dilbert1234567

we'll I'm not quite sure it could be anything other then 0

e^-n is the same as 1/(e^n) as n goes to infinity, it goes to zero.

using the ratio test, the summation converges absolutely, so it's finite (i think, this is as long as i can treat n as a constant) so since it's a finite number, multiplied by 0, it should be zero... if the summation does not converge, then the summation equals infinity. with the first e^-n going to zero, i don't see any possibility of it going to 1/2.

or at least that's what my 2 semesters of calculus say (well actually 5, 2 that i passed)

I'll forward it to my math professor, he likes challenges.

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